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1. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
(1) Cytochrome bc1
(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(4) NADH dehydrogenase
2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
(1) N2
(2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1
(4) 2N2
3. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D, F only.
(2) A, C, D, F only
(3) A, B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C, E, F only
4. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
(1) Aorta
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Vena cava
5. Which one of the following statements refers to reductionist biology?
(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(2) Physiological approach to study and understand, living organisms.
(3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
6. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
7. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Predation
(4) Amensalism
8. From the statements given below choose the correct option:
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S
(1) A, B, C are true
(2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true
(4) B, D, E are true
9. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
(1) National Park
(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas.
10. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
11. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I | List-II |
A. Emphysema | I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid |
B. Angina Pectoris | II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface |
C. Glomerulonephritis
| III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle |
D. Tetany | IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water
pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
13. Which of the following is an example of non—distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
(1) Whisky
(2) Brandy
(3) Beer
(4) Rum
14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
15. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
(1) Curd production
(2) Ethanol production
(3) Liver disease treatment
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
16. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
(1) Chromosome X
(2) Chromosome Y
(3) Chromosome 1
(4) Chromosome 10
17. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
(1) First and Second digit of fore limb
(2) First digit of hind limb
(3) Second digit of fore limb
(4) First digit of the fore limb
18. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
(1) Ethylene
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Cytokinin
19. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate
(4) Spongocoelomate
20. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Head I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome III. Energy
D. Tail IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
21. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, A, D, E, C
(2) B, A, E, C, D
(3) D, E, C, A, B
(4) E, D, C, B, A
22. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only.
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
23. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) D only
(3) B only
(4) E only
24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is Correct
25.
In the above represented plsmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
(2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
26. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast (3) Virus (4) Phage
27. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:
S – G + S# → S + S# – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate
(1) Hydrolase
(2) Lyase
(3) Transferase
(4) Ligase
28. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
(2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
29. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) D, E, A, C, B
(2) B, E, A, C, D
(3) B, E, A, D, C
(4) D, E, A, B, C
30. Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill noncancerous cells.
C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the
tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) B and D only
(2) D and E only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and C only
31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I | List-II |
A. Centromere | I.Mitochondrion |
B. Cilium | II. Cell Division |
C. Cristae | III. Cell movement |
D. Cell membrane | IV. Phospholipid Layer |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
32. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
33. Find the correct statements:
A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and E Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) B, C, D and E Only
(4) A, C, D and E Only
34. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Integument
(4) Aleurone layer
35. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.
36. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure
1. A
2.B
3. D
4. C
37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
38. A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Cristae
(4) Endoplasmic Reticulum
39. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) B, C, E only
(4) C, D, E only
40. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern
(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
41. Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?
(1) RuBisCo
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Catalase
42. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) C, E, A, D, B
(3) A, C, E, D, B
(4) C, E, A, B, D
43. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
(1) S. R. Kashyap
(2) Ramdeo Misra
(3) Ram Udar
(4) Birbal Sahni
44. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
45. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) B, C, D only
46. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of
recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are
found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
47. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
D. Alanine IV. Amino acid
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
48. Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the
male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for
males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of
menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B are true
(2) A and C are true
(3) B and D are true
(4) B and C are true
49. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
(1) Free living
(2) Endoparasite
(3) Symbiotic
(4) Ectoparasite
50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the
endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of
the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
51. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous II. Cotyledon of seed Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
52. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the
notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
53. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
54. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
(1) Complementary dsRNA
(2) Inhibitory ssRNA
(3) Complementary tRNA
(4) Non-complementary ssRNA
55. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy
produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
(2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
56. Histones are enriched with -
(1) Lysine & Arginine
(2) Leucine & Lysine
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine
57. The first menstruation is called:
(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Diapause
(4) Ovulation
58. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
C. Gastro-intestinal III. Atrial natriuretic tracts factor
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
59. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
(1) Cofactor
(2) Coenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme
(4) Prosthetic group
60. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
(1) gm–2
(2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3
(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1
61. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
(1) Analogy, convergent
(2) Homology, divergent
(3) Homology, convergent
(4) Analogy, divergent
62. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/8 (4) Zero
63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one
nucleus.
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing
the developing microspore mother cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correctexplanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
64. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female
gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
65. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
(1) Petunia
(2) Datura
(3) Pea
(4) Chilli
66. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) E, A, B only
(4) C, D, E only
67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in
fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
68. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
(1) To separate the chromosomes
(2) To synthesize new DNA
(3) To repair damaged DNA
(4) To regulate cell growth
69. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(2) Seeds are naked.
(3) Seeds are absent.
(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
70. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases/strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) D Only
71. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response
(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
(3) Because of structural variation
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased
72. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
73. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
(1) George Gamow
(2) Francis Crick
(3) Jacque Monod
(4) Franklin Stahl
74. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
75. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the
hypothalamus?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
76. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) A and C Only
(3) B and C Only
(4) B, D and E Only
77. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
(1) Acquired Immunity
(2) Innate Immunity
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity
(4) Humoral Immunity
78. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Nutrient absorption
(4) Gaseous exchange
79. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
(1) Liver and intestine
(2) Liver and kidney
(3) Kidney and intestine
(4) Kidney and lower part of body
80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
(1) It is active only in the dark.
(2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
(3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
(4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only
(2) A and B only
(3) D and E only
(4) B and C only
83. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for redifferentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, C, E only
(3) A, D, E only
(4) B, D, E only
84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
(1) α(alpha)
(2) σ(sigma)
(3) ρ (rho)
(4) γ (gamma)
85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(1) The statement is true for water but false for land
(2) The statement is true for both the environment
(3) The statement is false for water but true for land
(4) The statement is false for both the environment
86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
(1) They are monozygotic twins.
(2) They are fraternal twins.
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only
(3) C and D only (4) C and E only
88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
89. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as
recombinant colonies.
Statement II: The colonies without blue colourhave DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as
recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
